I mean, the original Latin version is basically the same as the English translation. And Jerome lived in Jerusalem among native Hebrew speakers when doing his translation in around 400 CE. So, I don’t get the comments that it’s edited for political purposes. If there’s a mistranslation, it goes back to the beginning and has held steady for 1600 years.
Also, not to lose sight of practicalities, if a billion Christians have relied on the “wrong” version over the last 1600 years, doesn’t that make the “wrong” version orthodox? The “right” translation at this point is heretical.